Ultimate Joe:
Re the need for a clinical psychologist, from Justice Mosk's concurring and dissenting opinion in Tarasoff v. Regents of University of California:
"In Burnick, at pages 325-326, we observed: "In the light of recent studies it is no longer heresy to question the reliability of psychiatric predictions. Psychiatrists themselves would be the first to admit that however desirable an infallible crystal ball might be, it is not among the tools of their profession. It must be conceded that psychiatrists still experience considerable difficulty in confidently and accurately diagnosing mental illness. Yet those difficulties are multiplied manyfold when psychiatrists venture from diagnosis to prognosis and undertake to predict the consequences of such illness: '" A diagnosis of mental illness tells us nothing about whether the person so diagnosed is or is not dangerous. Some mental patients are dangerous, some are not. Perhaps the psychiatrist is an expert at deciding whether a person is mentally ill, but is he an expert at predicting which of the persons so diagnosed are dangerous? Sane people, too, are dangerous, and it may legitimately be inquired whether there is anything in the education, training or experience of psychiatrists which renders them particularly adept at predicting dangerous behavior. Predictions of dangerous behavior, no matter who makes them, are incredibly inaccurate, and there is a growing consensus that psychiatrists are not uniquely qualified to predict dangerous behavior and are, in fact, less accurate in their predictions than other professionals."' (Murel v. Baltimore City Criminal Court (1972) ... 407 U.S. 355, 364-365, fn. 2 [32 L.Ed.2d 791, 796-797, 92 S.Ct. 2091] (Douglas, J., dissenting from dismissal of certiorari).)" (Fns. omitted.) (See also authorities cited at p. 327 & fn. 18 of 14 Cal.3d.)"
I would otherwise simply ask that you read:
http://www.ctvip.org/surgeongeneral.htmlAnd note:
"The thresholds of mental illness or disorder have, indeed been set by convention…"
Another way of putting that is that a group of people got together over shrimp cocktails and some martinis and decided to call it....and then they listed what they consider the "diagnostic criteria." Call it circular reasoning at its best.
And staying with convention:
http://www.behavenet.com/capsules/disorders/pedophiliaTR.htm"Diagnostic criteria for 302.2 Pedophilia
(cautionary statement)
A. Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children (generally age 13 years or younger).
B. The person has acted on these urges, or the sexual urges or fantasies cause marked distress or interpersonal difficulty.
C. The person is at least age 16 years and at least 5 years older than the child or children in Criterion A.
Note: Do not include an individual in late adolescence involved in an ongoing sexual relationship with a 12- or 13-year-old.
Specify if:
Sexually Attracted to Males
Sexually Attracted to Females
Sexually Attracted to Both
Specify if:
Limited to Incest
Specify type:
Exclusive Type (attracted only to children)
Nonexclusive Type"
Now, the obvious question? Is this man a pedophile? The only question that need be answered is that part about fantasy or urge [he's admitted the conduct part, and we know their ages]. If you've some better explanation as to mental state that explains the conduct in question, then be my proverbial guest. Failing that, we don't need to hear from the purported "professionals." And for the part that truly separates the men from the boys, that's the heart of the matter here....prepubescent. And we think it "abnormal" and/or "disordered" for the adult male to have sexual fantasies and urges concerning, pertaining, and relating to the prepubescent female. And that's why we put you in jail if you do such, and that's why the "professionals" got together over a lunch featuring shrimp cocktails and martinis and decided to call it something that could be included in their DSM.
And, lastly, while Mr. Cruise may have went a tad bit over the top, he's still in the ballpark. Please see:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.f...9&dopt=AbstractAnd here is the whole problem with treating pedophilia as a mental disease and/or illness [
http://www.psychnet-uk.com/dsm_iv/_misc/wh...s_dsm_iv_tr.htm ]:
"Several of the Paraphilias (exhibitionism, frotteurism, pedophilia, sexual sadism, and voyeurism) can now be diagnosed if they are acted upon, even though they may not cause the person whose behavior is in question distress or impaired functioning as a result."
And the reason for that concern is that the DSM at one time [and still may] report that:
"The Paraphilias are characterized by recurrent, intense, sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors that involve unusual objects, activities, or situations and cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The Paraphilias include Exhibitionism, Fetishism, Frotteurism, Pedophilia, Sexual Masochism, Sexual Sadism, Transvestic Fetishism, Voyeurism, and Paraphilia Not Otherwise Specified."
Yeah, one normally goes to the shrink because one perceives that one's life is being adversely affected by some mental process, i.e., one is aware that one is experiencing mental distress and/or impaired functioning. Is that true with respect to pedophilia? It appears that our friend was getting along fine [no evidence of impaired functioning] and was otherwise exhibiting no remorse [so no distress]. On that basis there is zero need for any therapy whatsoever. The need only and solely arises because of our MORAL judgment that pedophilia is wrong and we believe that "therapy" can help all concerned. Of course, maybe the rather high rate of recidivism means that we are mistaken, at least as concerns that second part.
Sorry, one more. Back to our little friend and fellow child of God. How old was she? Well, from the DSM: "Individuals with Pedophilia generally report an attraction to children of a particular age range. Some individuals prefer males, others females, and some are aroused by both males and females. Those attracted to females usually prefer 8- to 10-year-olds..."
Need I say....case closed?