1) Should Scalia recuse himself from the pending Hamdan vs. Rumsfeld? Why or Why not?Is publicizing your opinion about a legal issue grounds for recusal? Should Justice Ginsberg recuse herself from abortion cases because she is known to be pro-choice?
Recusal StatutesQUOTE
United States Code, Title 28, Section 455
Disqualification of Justice, Judge, or Magistrate (a) Any justice, judge, or magistrate of the United States shall disqualify himself in any proceeding in which his impartiality might reasonably be questioned.
(

He shall also disqualify himself in the following circumstances:
(1) Where he has a personal bias or prejudice concerning a party, or a personal knowledge of disputed evidentiary facts concerning the proceeding;
(2) Where in private practice he served as lawyer in the matter in controversy, or a lawyer with whom he previously practiced law served during such association as a lawyer has been a material witness concerning it;
(3) Where he has served in governmental employment and in such capacity participated as counsel, adviser or material witness concerning the proceeding or expressed an opinion concerning the merits of the particular case in controversy;
(4) He knows that he, individually or as a fiduciary, or his spouse or minor child residing in his household, has a financial interest in the subject matter in controversy or in a party to the proceeding, or any other interest that could be substantially affected by the outcome of the proceeding;
(5) He or his spouse, or a person within the the third degree of relationship to either of them, or the spouse of such a person:
Having one's philosophy known in not the same as losing one's impartiality.
The Hamdan case boils down to whether or not a captured enemy combatant is entitled to a full jury trial or court martial instead of a military tribunal. Scalia saying that we have never granted jury trials to captured enemies is not an indication of bias. It is an indication of knowledge of pertinent history.
2) If Scalia does recuse for bias, as Chief Justice Roberts already has due to the fact that he ruled already in an appellate capacity, what does this mean for the outcome of the case? Will Hamdan win?Traditionally, POWs are held until the end of hostilities. For example, in Korea POWs were held until truce talks began in 1951. Repatriation of captives actually prolonged the war when many North Koreas refused to be shipped back to the North.
In WW2, 400,000 German POWs were held in Britain until at least 1946. These POWs were forced to do the work on local farms and construction sites. The Geneva Convention was revised in 1949 partially due to what went on in the USSR POW camps.
Hamdan's case is that he is being unlawfully detained. I think he will lose that case on the merits. He was captured in Afghanistan and has admitted to being Osama bin Laden's personal driver and bodyguard. I think a reasonable person can be convinced that he is an unlawful enemy combatant (i.e. a terrorist).
The
lower court has ruled that Hamdan, if tried, must be tried by a court martial under the UCMJ because his status under the Geneva Convention has not been decided by a tribunal. It has also ruled that Hamdan cannot be tried under military tribunal unless the procedures for that court are changed (currently, it allows evidence against the defendant to be kept secret from him).
The Appeals Court reversed this decision, saying that the President himself is a competent authority to determine a detainee's status under the Geneva Convention and thus allowing a military tribunal instead of a court martial
Appeals court decision.