QUOTE(lordhelmet @ Nov 23 2006, 01:28 AM)

snipping the rant to stay on debate....
...which was your first mistake. My 'rant' as you call it was an explanation of appropriation of voice, something at the very heart of the topic, and an explanation of what is going on here. The fact you chose to ignore it is... well, unsurprising.
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You didn't answer my question. Who is to decide who is disadvantaged? You? Some self appointed "advantaged?
No I didn't, as it is an asinine question. Nobody decides who is 'disadvantaged', but back when whites started calling Blacks 'niggers' a few hundred years ago, I think not even YOU would argue that Blacks were 'disadvantaged' in the US. Mind you, you consistently deny that any racism exists at all, so maybe your denil does stretch back into US history, I don't know.
QUOTE(Vermillion @ Nov 22 2006, 05:04 PM)

You ignored my question again. I think you asked me a question in response so I'll try to answer it. If a gay person calls someone a "queer" then yes, they should be judged the same as a straight person who uses that word.
No, I didn't, you just ignored the answer. In fact I provided quite a length response as to the significance of context, and how not all terms and comments are equal in all situations, something by the way, a 6-year old can understand.
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I take it you believe I'm gay. I'm not. But, I sense that you believe that calling me a queer is some sort of an attack on your part.
Now that’s just silly. No, I don’t think you are gay at all. Nor is it meant as an attack, as I explained in GREAT DETAIL. Do you even read posts before responding? YOU are the one saying that is somebody in some situation can use the word 'nigger', then it MUST be appropriate for all people in all situations, a concept which is so utterly inane it defies conceptualisation.
I used' queer' as an example of that. Some people, in SOME contexts can call other 'queer'. Thus according to your logic, it is perfectly appropriate for me to use the same term here, as according to you there is NO SUCH THING as context.
Your attempt to turn a carefully explained and detailed parable into some kind of homophobic attack is just sad.
QUOTE(Vermillion @ Nov 22 2006, 05:04 PM)

No such thing as context in what context? Explain what you MEAN. You've avoided my point and just resorted to belittling my logic and my argument. That's no substitute for debate. If it's ok for the goose, then it should be ok for the gander. Or, does "context" mean having double standards? Having it both ways? Please explain, vermillion.
Dude... that doesn't even make any sense.
Are you SERIOUSLY and HONESTLY (real, honest question here) telling me you see NO difference at ALL between two longtime black friends calling each other 'my niggah' in private, and Michal Richards screaming the term at the top of his lungs on stage? Is that really what you are saying?
I have explained what I MEAN in great detail. If you then choose to ignore it, thats not my problem. Context is everything, not just with this word, but with most of them. Can you honestly not see that?
I mean, step back here. What are you actually arguing? Because some blacks, in some context can call each other 'nigger', therefore ALL people should be able to call all blacks 'niggers' at any time, and those people are not allowed to be offended?
I mean... wow. Thats out there, even for you.
QUOTE(Vermillion @ Nov 22 2006, 05:04 PM)

And furthermore, I've never stated that "all racism" is the "fault of blacks". That's just a misstatement of what I've posted in the past.
Oh, thats some high class wiggling my dear
lordhelmet, but you do yourself a disservice witha all that backpedaling. In fact you have stated several times in very explicit terms that any anti-black racism in the US is the fault of blacks…
Seriously friend, I can quote you saying that five times just by looking at the first two pages of your posting history, and I will HAPPILY quote them all if you insist with this absurd denial.
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"One can't be "equal" and either be considered a "victim" or patronized as "disadvantaged" and held to a lower standard". Now tell me what is wrong with that sentence. Anything?
Well, firstly the sentence structure is so garbled the sentence doesn’t actually mean anything. But I’m guessing that’s not what you meant. Still, kindof amusing though.
However, if you infer what you meant to say from the sentence, then of course it is wrong, it is wrong on basic logic.
Women were first considered ‘equal’ under the law in the US in 1923. t that point, they were legally ‘equals’. Is it correct to say that the status of women in 1924 US was ‘disadvantaged’, or that they were victimised by society? Of course it is. It is entirely possible to be legally considered equals, and yet still be disadvantaged.
The status of women in the US changed only very, very slowly until the advent of Affirmative action, which placed them for the first time on near equal footing with men. In your various attacks on AA, you always seem to forget the vast, clear and measurable change it made in just a few years in the status of women in the US.
NOW THEN,as I said before, you have carried this WAY off topic. This is about Michal Richards foolish use of a term in a derogatory manner, and you have (again) tried to turn it into a thread about general racism and AA. Please confine such discussions to the already active threads on those topics.