QUOTE(CruisingRam)
Schizophrenia is empirically able to be diagnosed, through imaging and observation of behaviors.
CR, I know we have had this debate in the past, but I am still not convinced nor shown evidence of how brain imaging shows schizophrenia. Again, the only way that this could be objectively tested is if a psychiatrist took 100 random people and used brain imaging on them and is able to determine who is schizophrenic and who isn't based on that data. Now I have never seen such an experiment done. Why don't we have brain imaging done on a regular basis like an annual checkup to make sure people who are actually schizophrenic are caught and treated? That's because its based on the observations of behavior...observations that are subjective and play into the social construct of society.
SchizophreniaQUOTE
It has been argued that the diagnostic approach to schizophrenia is flawed, as it relies on an assumption of a clear dividing line between what is considered to be mental illness (fulfilling the diagnostic criteria) and mental health (not fulfilling the criteria). Recently it has been argued, notably by psychiatrist Jim van Os and psychologist Richard Bentall, that this makes little sense, as studies have shown that many people have psychotic experiences and have delusion-like ideas without becoming distressed, disabled or diagnosable by the categorical system (potentially because they interpret their experiences in more positive ways, or hold more pragmatic and commonly accepted beliefs).
Of particular concern is that the decision as to whether a symptom is present is a subjective decision by the person making the diagnosis or relies on an incoherent definition (for example, see the entries on delusions and thought disorder for a discussion of this issue). More recently, it has been argued that psychotic symptoms are not a good basis for making a diagnosis of schizophrenia as "psychosis is the 'fever' of mental illness — a serious but nonspecific indicator".
Perhaps because of these factors, studies examining the diagnosis of schizophrenia have typically shown relatively low or inconsistent levels of diagnostic reliability. Most famously, David Rosenhan's 1972 study, published as On being sane in insane places, demonstrated that the diagnosis of schizophrenia was (at least at the time) often subjective and unreliable. More recent studies have found agreement between any two psychiatrists when diagnosing schizophrenia tends to reach about 65% at best. This, and the results of earlier studies of diagnostic reliability (which typically reported even lower levels of agreement) have led some critics to argue that the diagnosis of schizophrenia should be abandoned.
65%? Doesn't seem like hard science to me when two psychiatrists can agree only 65% of the time. That leaves 35% of cases where there is a disagreement of whether a person is schizophrenic or not. If schizophrenia was really a matter of the brain function, it would be under neurology and not psychiatry.
QUOTE(CruisingRam)
By the time the trial rolls around anyway- most of the meds are tapered down in dosage once they achieve the loading dose= and those poeple ARE NOT somehow sedated like Leder infers- I know of AT LEAST 200 chronically schizophrenic patients that live in the community that are PROFOUNDLY mentally ill- to the point of playing in thier feces and such. But the meds have made many of them unrecognizable to the public as mentally ill.
Sedated may not be the right word, but the medication does restrict the level of dopamine that goes to the brain and that has a lot to do with restricting the behavior of the defendant.
QUOTE(ConservPat)
I agree with the prosecutor for several reasons, not the least of which being that the medication is not punishment. The authorities are not medicating this man to punish him for the crime[s] he committed, they're medicating him because he's ill and because his sentence [death] cannot be served if he remains unmedicated. In addition, and most obviously, if you're insane and pose a risk to the safety of others it becomes the role of the government to protect others from you, even if those "others" include other criminals and especially prison personnel. There is no Constitutional violation here as far as I can see.
I have to say that i am surprised
CP. The state forcibly injecting a person with medication is not justified. The argument that the defendant "may be a harm to himself and others" is a dangerous line of logic. In this country, you cannot be punished for crimes you may committ, only for ones you have committed.