QUOTE(entspeak @ Apr 19 2007, 07:27 PM)

QUOTE(GuardianAngel @ Apr 19 2007, 01:53 PM)

HAHHAHAHAHAHHAHAHAHHHAHAHHAHAHHAHHAHAHAHAH!!!!
oh wait you were serious.....
this is not a negative permission model
laws are not written in the " you must first disallow " model. if that were the case noone could be charged with burglary or rape which assume you do not have permission until expressly granted it.
this is written the same way.
All laws define the terms used in them.
Well. This law defines "uses a computer or computer service without permission" as use
after knowing permission was restricted or denied. That is how that law defines the term. As such, an individual is not "using a computer or computer without permission"
unless they do so after having been given notice that use of the computer or computer service is not authorized by the lessor or owner of the computer or computer service. If the owner or lessor does not inform them in some way that they do not have permission, then the user doesn't fit the definition under the law... and the law does not apply.
This way, if you go into a library that has free public Wi-Fi, as I have done, and open up your computer and start surfing the web, you can't be charged with theft of service because nobody told you access to that Wi-Fi was restricted. If an establishment advertises free access to a Wi-Fi network, how can one be breaking the law by accessing it for free?
If someone is giving away free lemonade, can I go back for as much lemonade as I want as long as the lemonade is being offered? What about if they put up a sign or tell me that it is free, but only one per customer? Obviously, I can't demand lemonade after the lemonade is no longer being offered. And, I think a seller is within their rights to tell me that I can only have a limited amount of free lemonade... but unless they tell me I can only have a limited amount, I'm not stealing lemonade as long as they are offering it.
And if, for some reason, they leave the lemonade stand and there is still lemonade there with a sign saying free lemonade. Am I stealing if I take some lemonade? The sign said it was free. If I brought my own pitcher and emptied the pitcher of lemonade into it and left the person's empty pitcher there - taking only the lemonade... would it be stealing?
How can you steal something that is being given away freely, as long as it is being offered?
Is that something of value?
is that something of value being given to you by the OWNER? (this is a serious sticking point.)
do you have a REASONABLE belief that, that something is being given freely?
1) Yes Internet service is something of value
2) The ISP is the owner of the service
3) this is the point of contention. The library was closed, as such it is NOT reasonable to consider it as being purposefully given freely.
this is also akin to receiving stolen property even if it was paid for by you it was not the sellers to give.
the Terms of Service of ALL but a very few specialized ISPs specificly set up for subletting or allowing third party client access, strictly forbid it.
The oenus of permission is on the person accessing the network, not the network admin, they are the one taking the thing of value.
in your example if i left a pitcher of lemonade on my porch you should be able to come and take it because i did not put a sign up stating you couldn't.
If the access point is "CONNECT_TO_ME" or "FREE_INET" or something of the like then you could say you had a reasonable expectation of use,
just because it is unencrypted does not give a reasonable expectation of use.
QUOTE(carlitoswhey @ Apr 19 2007, 07:19 PM)

QUOTE(GuardianAngel @ Apr 19 2007, 12:53 PM)

this is not a negative permission model
laws are not written in the " you must first disallow " model. if that were the case noone could be charged with burglary or rape which assume you do not have permission until expressly granted it.
this is written the same way.
All laws define the terms used in them.
Just curious, but if it's implied that you need permission, why do most gateways do a WiFi portal screen that reminds you of the TOS? I mean, if it's already
implied and all.
I know that you're an expert and all...but the A B and C are crystal clear that you must have been given notice that you needed permission.
Could you just lower yourself to our level for a second and explain why the law would bother listing how I MUST be given permission as the "user" given the way the law reads. We're well aware that the law defines terms.
This law defines a user in violation as one who has been notified by one of the 3 methods listed in A B and C.
Actually,
Those are the three ways you can be granted permission, most commonly falling under A or B.
either the librarian telling him it is OK to access the network, or a sign when you come in stating that an open AP is available.
In many places such as starbucks you will see a sign on the door telling you wireless access is available, and in many cases what the SSID is.
BTW how did he know that the SSID he was connecting to was the library and not a residential AP.