QUOTE(droop224 @ May 18 2007, 10:53 AM)

The reason you don't see gender involved in legal definition prior to the 70's is because marriage ALWAYS involved both genders!!
Yes, yes, and marriage was
always about procreation too until relatively recently. Not so long ago, you
always couldn't use contraception in marriage. That changed, didn't it? Not long ago, you
always had to engage in penetrative vaginal intercourse in marriage - meaning that all other forms of intercourse were illegal. But that changed, didn't it?
Just because something has
always been, doesn't mean it can't change.
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Homosexuals were kept from legally marrying because of sodomy laws.
Says who??
Point 1: Sodomy law apply to heterosexuals and homosexuals. Point 2: Marriage is defined as the union of people, right, not sex.
Says the law. Homosexuals were not capable of engaging in the obligations of marriage set down in the law. As such, they were unable to legally engage in the contract. It makes no legal sense to require the allowance of procreation in marriage to the extent that you criminalize other sexual behavior and then allow a group to marry who will not further the aims of allowing people to marry. That's why homosexuals were not allowed to marry before. Because they were implicitly excluded by the nature of the marriage contract that existed. The nature of the marriage contract has since changed radically.
There was a time when marriage was, primarily, about procreation. There was support for that in the law.
You couldn't have sex outside of marriage (fornication laws), you couldn't have sex with anyone other than the person you were married to (adultery), you couldn't use contraception (bans on contraception) and the only sex act legally available to married couples was penetrative vaginal intercourse (sodomy laws). By agreeing to be married you were allowed to have sex. Why? The government wanted to be sure that procreation and the raising of that offspring occured in what the State believed was the ideal environment for that to occur.
So, the right to marry was connected to the right to have sex.
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Your stating that marriage was redefined to exclude same-sex couples... so prior to the 70's same sex couple must have been included, so where were all the marriages.
I've already explained this. Perhaps you can point to the law that prevented same-sex couples from marrying prior to the 70's?
Because the legal definition of marriage
was, prior to the 70's, a personal relationship arising from a civil contract between two people capable of engaging in that contract.
Now, the legal definition of marriage
has to mean something, doesn't it? It
is the legal definition of marriage and you can't go reading into that definition some other definition. You can't infer that
two people means a man and a woman... it means
two people.
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All of the parameters that surround marriage when dealing with consenting adults are arbitrarily set.
Really? They are arbitrary? They serve no need? There is no reason for them to be there? I find that fascinating. Perhaps you could provide some proof of this.
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For you to have second class marriage, first you would have to allow same-sex marriage. Then you would offer them some, but not all the benefits of heterosexual marriages. Then you have a sub-par marriage that is unconstitutional.
No. All you have to do is unnecessarily restrict the right to choose who they can marry and then offer some, all or close to all the same benefits of marriage but just, for some reason, call it something else.
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The persecution of homosexuals was so great that there were no same-sex couples.
This is ignorant to the point of absurdity.