When sex is your job, and you agree on a transaction, is it rape when the transaction goes wrong?I Googled "Definition: Rape" and got several pages. The first one that was for a legal definition (as opposed to debate threads or articles discussion what rape should or should not be) was from the Washington State penal code:
QUOTE
Rape is defined by the Washington State Criminal Code as engaging in sexual intercourse with another person under any of the following circumstances:
1st degree: forcible compulsion including the use, or threatened use of a weapon, or what appears to be a weapon; or kidnapping the victim, or inflicting serious physical injury; or feloniously entering into a building or vehicle where the victim is located;
2nd degree: forcible compulsion (a) when the victim is incapable of giving consent because he or she is physically helpless or mentally incapacitated for any reason, including being under the influence of alcohol and/or other drugs (e.g. Rohypnol and Gamma Hydroxy Butyrate (GHB)), (

the victim is developmentally disabled and the perpetrator is a person who is not married to the victim and who has supervisory authority over the victim, © the perpetrator is a health care provider, the victim is a client or patient, and the sexual intercourse occurs during a treatment session, (d) the victim is a resident of a facility for the mentally disordered or chemically dependent persons and the perpetrator is not married to the victim and has supervisory authority over the victim, or (e) the victim is a frail elder or vulnerable adult and the perpetrator is a person who is not married to the victim and who has signifacant relationshop to the victim.
3rd degree: the victim does not consent to sexual intercourse with the perpetrator and such lack of consent is expressed by the victim's words or conduct.
The Criminal Code defines sexual intercourse as penetration, however slight, of the vagina or anus by a penis or other object, such as a finger. The law also prohibits forced oral sex. This law is gender neutral and recognizes that rape happens between members of either the same sex or different sexes.
Edited to add:
I also found the Pennsylvania penal code definition of rape, which is the one that would apply in this case:
QUOTE
§ 3121. Rape
(a) Offense defined.--A person commits a felony of the first degree when he or she
engages in sexual intercourse with a complainant:
1. By forcible compulsion.
2. By threat of forcible compulsion that would prevent resistance by a person of
reasonable resolution.
3. Who is unconscious or where the person knows that the complainant is unaware that
the sexual intercourse is occurring.
4. Where the person has substantially impaired the complainant's power to appraise or
control his or her conduct by administering or employing, without the knowledge of the
complainant, drugs, intoxicants or other means for the purpose of preventing resistance.
5. Who suffers from a mental disability which renders the complainant incapable of
consent.
6. Who is less than 13 years of age.
(As far as I am aware, legal codes are not copyrighted material so I'm okay to post this definition in full within the rules of

, but I'm open to correction.)
Nowhere in this definition do "prostitution" or "provision of a service" get mentioned. So those aspects of the case you outline are completely irrelevant.
I don't doubt that different states and countries define rape differently, but it seems to me that this defintion is good enough to be going on with.
The important idea is that, even where force or weapons or abuse of power are not used, it's still rape (albeit, in WA, 3rd degree rape and presumably less serious an offence) as long as consent is withheld or withdrawn. And, to my mind, the only circumstance in which such non-violent and unforced sexual intercourse where consent was withdrawn after commencement would be if that withdrawal of consent took place after cessation. i.e. a person might regrat having had sex with someone, and may wish that they hadn't but if they don't express in words or conduct their lack of consent while intercourse is still taking place, they just have to put it down to experience. (That's assuming they are conscious and/or in a fit state to give consent; if they aren't, were back to rape again - in this WA to 2nd degree rape._
Since a gun was used, and consent was withdrawn, this was
rape. Pure and simple.
Mitigating circumstances - "she was a hooker and went off with her next 'client' straight away", "she changed her mind halfway through", "she was asking for it", "it went off in my hand", "I didn't know it was illegal" - are to be taken into account in the passing of the
sentence. They make no difference at all to the offence charged or to the verdict passed, because those things should be based on - and
only on - the available evidence. Call me an idealist if you like, but the justice system is
supposed to be about the ideal of justice. (We all no that there isn't really any reliable
natural justice - which is why we have to have a justice system at all.)
Of course, the trouble with rape - especially the type of rape that would be 3rd degree rape in WA (and that didn't take place in this case) - is that there are no marks and no evidence and, almost certainly, no witnesses.
And I still believe it's more important that innocent people don't get convicted incorrectly than guilty people go free, so I don't want to see any legal exceptionalism in rape cases like some people argue for (e.g. that the burden of proof should be reversed, that the standard for conviction should change from "beyond reasonable doubt" to "on balance of probablities" etc.)
In such situations, it becomes one person's word against anothers. While I doubt it is very common (at the moment), there have been enough documented cases where a "victim" has - maliciously or otherwise - cried wolf when it comes to rape that we can never allow the uncorroborted word of a self-proclaimed victim to be enough to convict anybody (of anything, not just rape).