The main principle I wanted to demonstrate was that you cannot sell $4 worth of goods in a $3 economy. A producer cannot charge $4, say for product, A. He
must reduce his price down to $3 in order to sell product A. If $1 is committed already to both A and C, the maximum the producer can charge is $1.
Whats nice about my completely unrealistic instantaneous model is that the
amount of dollars in circulation relative to the amount of goods stays constant. As long as this balance is maintained, there will be no inflation.
QUOTE
Long ago, Aluminum was an expensive and relatively rare metal. Mining techniques changed that. Today, titanium is considered useful and somewhat rare but they are working on techniques that will likely decrease the cost of titanium substantially. I see this happening with gold too (especially if we chose it to back our currency). Gold is now worth essentially a third of what it was less than thirty years ago.
I understand. I said as much in my first post:
QUOTE(BH)
Of course, gold can be mined and sold, which would dilute the value of gold everywhere.
I just want to point out that the creation of money is not exempt from this principle either. If you increase the amount of dollars, just as if you increase the amount of gold, it will lose its value relative to other goods.
If gold were to become as cheap and plentiful as you say, the amount of gold it would take to purchase the same good would increase.
Likewise, if money were to become plentiful (And cheap! Low interest rates) through monetary operations, the amount of money it would take purchase the same good would increase. (inflation)
QUOTE
A=fruit
B=manufactured items
C=petroleum
In your above supposition, if the cost of petroleum goes up, the cost of manufactured items and/or fruit goes down. But both fruit and manufacturing requires the use of petroleum. If the cost of petroleum goes up, so must the cost of fruit and manufacturing (and distributing) or else those items cannot be manufactured in the first place and the plants close and the agricultural industry tanks as well.
I think your right. There are some obviously serious limitations to my model, but I think we can recreate whats happening here well enough. Lets say the price of C increases $1, which in turn, causes a price increase to both A and B of $0.50. You would have:
A= $1.50
B= $1.50
C= $2.00
Lets say C has already been purchased to produce both A and B. In that case, there is $1 remaining, so neither can profit at a $1.50 price. They must lower it to some combination that equals $1.
Of course, we could really take this to an extreme an wonder what the person whom received the $2 did with that money. If both A and B retain their static quantities of C (unlike petro, its not expensed), and the amount of money never changes, I think you can safely swap around all the goods without inflation. You cannot sell $5 to $3, no matter what! This might cause either the producer of A or B to drop out.
Maybe a more intellectually satisfying way is to say that a rise in Petro increases the cost of production for all goods, which reduces the supply. As supply decreases, the amount of dollars relative to goods increases (in what has been known as stagflation, a reduction of output and inflation). In order to decrease the inflation, we would expect monetary policy to reign in the money supply (lowering the amount of money to the amount of goods) by increasing interest rates, as Volcker did in the late 1970's.