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America's Debate > Policy Debate > Constitutional Debate
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entspeak
The word "disenfranchise" is being tossed around quite a bit these days. It is said that the voters in Michigan and Florida have been disenfranchised if their delegates are not allowed to participate in the Democratic Convention. The former governor of Indiana claims that people in that state will be disenfranchised if a candidate quits before that states primary.

Questions for Debate:

1. Is not being allowed - or getting the chance - to vote in a party primary disenfranchisement?

2. If so, is it unconstitutional?
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Ted
QUOTE
Questions for Debate:

1. Is not being allowed - or getting the chance - to vote in a party primary disenfranchisement?

IMO it is. Even worse if you vote and then the vote is “not counted”.

QUOTE
2. If so, is it unconstitutional?


May not be since this is a primary. Certainly looks and feels “bad” though.
Amlord
1. Is not being allowed - or getting the chance - to vote in a party primary disenfranchisement?

To my knowledge, there is no guarantee that any particular candidate must be able to run in the "official" race. The primary is simply a mechanism by which political parties choose the person they will put up as their candidate. By that reasoning, shinanigans in a primary is not disenfranchisement since you can write in anyone you want (Romney, Paul, Clinton or any other non-viable candidate) in November.

Now, from a Party member's perspective, their vote certainly didn't count so they feel left out of the Party that they have willingly joined. This will create negative feelings towards those party bosses that created the situation which caused them to not be able to be heard.
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