QUOTE(Mrs. Pigpen @ Aug 25 2003, 05:07 PM)
QUOTE(quarkhead @ Aug 25 2003, 02:39 PM)
I guess that what I'm saying is that while a law may have a moral source, morality cannot be the only basis for the law - the law must also be equitable and just.
What defines 'just' and 'equitable'? Morality is the distinction of right from wrong. Justice and equitability are defined by morality.
While justice and equity may be based ultimately on morality, they are more about the fair
application of laws, in the context of what I was trying to say. For example, a law which establishes a public school system is a law based on the moral ideal that education is a right, not a privilege. However, if that "public" school system is only available to some, justice is not served. The civil rights movement was fundamentally
not about establishing a new code of law; it was about
applying the existing protections of the Constitution in a just and equitable way.
QUOTE(Mrs. Pigpen @ Aug 25 2003, 05:07 PM)
No one should be obligated to suffer against his/her own will for the betterment of another, under fear of prosecution, except under the most compelling of circumstances. That seems to me a rather paradoxical position on moral relativism...government enforced charity.
That's a good point. Perhaps I can try and clear up the scattered ideas I was throwing out in my last post.
We are taxed for the upkeep of roads, even if we don't drive, right? Why is taxing non-drivers acceptable? Well, because even if we ourselves do not use the roads, we benefit from them - and I realize this may seem obvious - because having well-maintained roads is like grease in the machine of industrial society. Producers don't have to pass on as much in transportation costs to the consumer, because they don't have to build and maintain their own roadways.
We are taxed for schools, though we may not have children; again, though it may seem obvious, we still benefit because, as you said, "an ignorant populace is a detriment to everyone."
So even if I and my children attend private schools, and do not drive, we benefit from the public system of schools and roads. And yet, on one level, a person could argue that they are suffering "against his/her own will for the betterment of another" by these taxes.
QUOTE(Mrs. Pigpen @ Aug 25 2003, 05:07 PM)
Obviously, there is a point in which community interests supersede individual rights. Living in a society requires an obligation on the part of its citizens for protection and other mutual benefit. That is the basis for public education, urgent medical care, ect. We don't allow people to die of starvation, unless it's the result of self-induced anorexia. It doesn’t benefit society to allow people to die in the street, and an ignorant populace is a detriment to everyone.
And yet there
are Americans who die of malnutrition, or of diseases which could be prevented by full and real health care. Don't we ultimately save money
and benefit when the populace receives preventive health care, not only emergent care? Providing free urgent care costs the society more than providing free preventive care. That's just common sense.
Do you think that society benefits when one parent can be home with their children? Does society benefit more from a mother working as a hotel maid for less than minimum wage (they do this by paying for rooms completed, not hourly rates, and it is a fairly common practice in the hotel industry), with her child in a crappy daycare staffed by minimum wage workers, or from that same mother being home with her child?
This all may seem off-topic, but I don't believe it is. What I am attempting to address is this:
Laws are based on morals, but are often not applied justly or equally to all. And the morality upon which a nation bases its laws has been, historically, the moral consensus of the governing elite. At one point it was the moral consensus of the United States that owning a human being was acceptable.
If our argument is for a moral consensus which is guided by the idea that governmental coercion is acceptable when the the outcome benefits the entire society, then I place government sponsored charity and universal preventive health care on a par with education, roads, and defense. We have already established that one's personal benefit from any of these things may not be obvious or direct, but exists nonetheless.
mrspigpen, I want to bring this to a personal level, but I don't want you to take offense, because you know I respect you and your opinions greatly.
Your husband flies fighter jets, correct? He is paid by taxpayers' money. His planes cost us millions of dollars. The purpose of those planes, and his job, is to destroy things in warfare. I'm not making a judgement by saying this - we accept that his job benefits our country, because he is helping to provide for our defense, and so while we may groan about the high expeditures of the Defense Dept., we don't complain about our tax money funding Mr. Pigpen's career.
My wife is a Practitioner for the Indian Health Service. She too is paid by the Federal government. She is paid to provide preventive and emergent health care to Native Americans, free of any cost to them. Her work definitely benefits our entire community. Our reservation is one hour from the nearest hospital, two hours from the nearest emergency room, and four hours from the nearest real trauma center (Seattle). Because of the high rate of unemployment here, and the level of poverty, people can not afford insurance, and a private clinic would have absolutely no profit incentive to operate here. So the American taxpayers pay for this clinic, and for my wife's job, and the community profits by being healthier. As the general level of health benefits the community, the healthy community benefits everyone, albeit indirectly.
So why would some people consider it
moral to have a law which requires the taxpayers to fund the careers of people whose job it is to make war, and
immoral to have a law which requires taxpayers to fund the careers of people whose job it is to provide health care to others?