Should Scalia recuse himself? Absolutely. Will he? Highly unlikely.
The answer to the first question tells us why: Can Scalia be impartial in this case?
Are you kidding?
First, I should mention that 95% of the time, Scalia appears to be a man of principle. His judicial philosophy and his approach to the role of the courts under the Constitution is remarkably congruous. He has long seemed to advocate judicial constraint when it comes to imposing personal values on Constitutional matters. While I may disagree with many of his interpretations, his opinions are generally well-reasoned and consistent. This is why, when his decisions come to White House politics, the
inconsistency is so glaring. The
Clinton v. Jones decision would be the first such instance of seeming contradiction in an otherwise distinguished career.
To assess Scalia's impartiality when it comes to
this administration, though, we need only look to the last time he was making a decision regarding a case brought by his friends in the West Wing:
Bush v. Gore. That was perhaps the
least impartial decision the Supreme Court of the United States has ever entered - and Scalia was one of the principals behind it.
I hate to revisit that contentious case yet again, but I feel it
does bear on this one. Though the Supreme Court Justices (or some of them) made the unprecedented decision that their decision should not set a precedent, that case
did set a precedent - regarding their credibility.
Let's see how "impartial" Scalia was in 2000:
1. The vote count in Florida was proceeding smoothly and swiftly - and in accord with statutory Florida state law* - as of December 9, 2000, when the Bush campaign requested a stay. Under Supreme Court rules, a stay is only to be granted if there is a substantial showing that the applicant will suffer "irreparable harm" without such a stay. Antonin Scalia justified shutting down the state-sanctioned vote count by writing that Bush would suffer such harm because counting legitimate votes in Florida would be "casting a cloud upon what he claims to be the legitimacy of his election". [emphasis added] Hello - "his" election had not even been determined. Scalia was not only presuming the outcome of the election, but also that a first count of the votes - as defined by Florida state law - could "cloud" the legitimacy of that presumption. That was an impartial decision?
2. On November 22, 2000 - the first time the Bush campaign tried to prevent legitimately cast votes from being counted in Florida - the Supreme Court denied review of the objection that the vote count violated the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. On November 22, they decided that this argument was so lacking in merit that they wouldn't even consider it. This came as no surprise. Justice Scalia and the other right-leaning justices on the bench had consistently resisted revising (or even contemplating) the equal protection clause and, as Scalia himself had previously argued, promoting "progressively higher degrees of equality". In the three weeks between his initial rejection of the equal protection argument and his decision on December 12, though, something happened which caused Scalia to reverse his opinion in all such previous cases and suddenly embrace and endorse the previously rejected argument. What happened? He ran out of sound, consistent arguments to decide the case in favor of Bush. That was a sign of impartiality?
3. Speaking of reversals of position, Scalia has also long been an advocate of federalism and ardent supporter of states' rights. His natural predilection in almost any other case would be to defer to the state court's decision - especially when it comes to state election law. Until, that is, December 2000. Scalia departed from what would be an almost reflexive impulse for one case and one case only and decided that - just this once - meddling with states' rights and re-writing state election law was okay. That was impartial?
4. "The Supreme Court of the United States does not sit to announce 'unique' dispositions." (Antonin Scalia, United States v. Virginia) --- "Our consideration is limited to the present circumstances." (Per curiam opinion in Bush v. Gore) I rest my case.
Again, I feel that Scalia is ordinarily consistent in his decisions and resists the influence of personal values in reaching decisions. When it comes to the Bush dynasty, though, I wouldn't trust him as far as I could throw the Washington Monument.
Apologies, by the way, for a lack of references in the above. Most of the links I have regarding this "cold case" have expired or are archived and available only by subscription. For more on all of the above, I would recommend either Vincent Bugliosi's
The Betrayal of America: How the Supreme Court Undermined the Constitution and Chose Our President or Alan Dershowitz'
Supreme Injustice: How the High Court Hijacked Election 2000.
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*According to §102.168(8) of the Florida Election Code, when the State Supreme Court finds that a challenge to a certified result has merit, it has the power to "provide any relief appropriate under the circumstances" - which is exactly what they were doing in ordering a manual count - authorized under §102.166(4c) of the Florida Election Code - of some 60,000 disputed (and uncounted) ballots.