QUOTE(Sleeper)
There is an inherent problem with the option 'good of the people'. Who is going to choose what is 'good' in the 'good of the people'. Should it not be the will of the people to chose what is good of the people.
The biggest problem I have with this is appointed(not elected) judges are making the decisions for the majority when they are opposed to that decision.
If there are those who believe that decisions for the good of the people should be made by a select few. Wouldn't that be an Oligarchy form of government?
It really seems to me that Americans have a tendency to disregard the constitution ENTIRELY when it suits their purposes, and this argument is a prime example. The judges are doing EXACTLY what they are supposed to do. Decide on the constitutionality of the law of the land. Now, you'd have to look at the constitutions of the individual states in which their respected Supreme Courts are acting, but the principle is universal across the United States.
How is this different than an Oligarchy. The answer is very simple, checks and balances. Say what you will about the shifting weight of the power of each branch of government, the fact is that NO SINGLE BRANCH can decide how government operates. What they can do is act in the area in which their mandate dictates. For the Supreme Court, that area is:
QUOTE(Article 3 Section 2)
The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority; ... to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party; to Controversies between two or more States; between a State and Citizens of another State; between Citizens of different States; between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.
Now it seems to me that if someone feels that their rights are being denied (as set forth from the Constitution of either their state or the U.S.) then it is PAINFULLY OBVIOUS that it is the responsibility of the Courts to look at their case. The fact that you deny this indicates that you are either simply aggrieved of the decisions being made (in which case your argument has no integrity) or you do not approve of the process in which they are being made (in which case your argument has no merit.)
Now as for actually amending the constitution; here is the problem I have. Bush is LEADING the campaign for an amendment. While legally he is not the one proposing it, he IS the one actively pursuing it. This certainly seems to me to be a direct rejection of the Constitution yet again, which states:
QUOTE(Article 5)
The Congress, whenever two thirds of both Houses shall deem it necessary, shall propose Amendments to this Constitution, or, on the Application of the Legislatures of two thirds of the several States, shall call a Convention for proposing Amendments
The Constitution makes it quite clear that amendments should only be sought by Congress (or Legislature as represented by both houses or each separate body.) It is neither the Presidents province nor obligation to modify the constitution. That particular part of the constitution has some more meat for this particular discussion:
QUOTE(Article 5)
which, in either Case, shall be valid to all Intents and Purposes, as part of this Constitution,
Now, nowhere in the Constitution is marriage mentioned. Nowhere in the Constitution is "tradition" mentioned, nor "history." So how on earth can ANY amendment having ANYTHING to do with marriage be considered a valid part of the constitution? And if it is not valid, how can it be a legitimate amendment as defined by Article 5?