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But by your own words, not all of them do. Unless the value of almost was upgraded to all. That and number one, if military personell are off duty and in civilian attire, then they are considered civilians.
Yes, not all of them do, only the ones that are handicapped are the exception, otherwise they all must join. So according to them 95% of the population are targets, while only 5% at most become suicide bombers.
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The Geneva Convention protects civilians in occupied territories, not civilians who are in fact occupiers. All of Israel, Tel Aviv included, is occupied Palestine. So we're not actually targeting civilians-that would go against Islam."
That is how they justify it. Israel target Hamas leaders at church, shouldn't they be considered civilians then?
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No one knows who exactly will or will not become a member of the IDF.
Yes, you do. If you are a citizen of Israel and aren't handicapped you are going to join the IDF. When they change the law, leave or whatever then they cannot be considered a target.
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If Israel intentionally targeted Palestinian women and children, there would be an uproar of massive proportions. So why is it that Hamas et al fell they are justified?
Because they do target women children and the elderly. That is why they feel justified. Even if you don't count military actions just look at occupation, their policies don't ever consider the Palestinian women, children, elderly and any other Palestinian group. That is how they justify it.
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It worked for Gandhi. Why wont it work for the PA?
Look at the colonization of India and colonization of Israel. India was just under control of of the British, they were not bringing in a population of people in a displacing the natives. Palestine was already occupied by people and the British ruled them. They then started forcibly making Palestinians accommodate the jews by force. If the Israelis wanted peace they would have dealt with the Palestinians from the inception of Israel and not force them to comply by having the British control them at gunpoint. Thats what Gandhi meant when he said "They can settle in Palestine only by the goodwill of the Arabs…As it is, they are co-sharers with the British in despoiling a people who have done no wrong to them." The Israelis came in with the intent of driving the Palestinians out.
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"In internal discussion in 1938 [David Ben-Gurion] stated that 'after we become a strong force, as a result of the creation of a state, we shall abolish partition and expand into the whole of Palestine'...
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Ghandi had it right on non-violence but he was wrong on the history! Especially Judean history. The Jews were in Judea 4000 years ago. Check their calendar. The Arabs were in "Arabia";......reclaim their homeland in the face of overwhelming odds."
So do Israel has the right to return but the Palestinians don't? They lived there for a longer period then the Jews. But what Gandhi is referring to is that the Palestinians were the rightful owners of the land because they were currently living there. Do you still consider your childhood home to be yours even though the family sold it years ago or were evicted? Whatever happened to posession was 9/10 of the law.