OOH, I like this line of logic, it's something I've thought about myself. I've come to the conclusion that discrimination is a "bad" thing, but then had to stop and take a closer look given the examples hiring of felons for specific types of employment.
I'm having a bit of a tough time coming up with a concise position mostly due to uncertainty about the question as stated, so I'm going to take the questions to mean what I think they do - sorry if I get your line of reasoning mixed up.
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1. Have discrimination laws been taken to such an extreme that we can no longer differentiate discrimination of actions versus discrimination of being? (ie. discrimination against people who swear versus discrimination of people for being a certain race).
I interpret this as an attempt to draw a distinction between choice and condition. To say that on one hand there is a person who has chosen to do something or be a certain way, and on the other is someone who has a condition beyond their ability to control. To frame it in context of the specific issue, the question seems to imply that homosexuality is considered a choice, of actions, and that you heritage, eye color, race or other factor, is a condition beyond your ability to change despite your desire to change it.
I think it best if I approach the question with a more structured understanding of the word in question - discrimination, or discriminate. Using Websters definition that I think most applies to the subject matter
Main Entry: dis·crim·i·nate
"2 : to make a difference in treatment or favor on a basis other than individual merit" (
http://www.webster.com/cgi-bin/dictionary?...=discriminating )
and applied to the subject matter, homosexuality and marriage, I find it readily apparent that no attempt is being made to ascertain the "individual merit" of any sanctioned marriages - homosexual or heterosexual. Well, that is, beyond the already existing legal requirements (blood test, license, proof of identity ect). So what "differentiates" any of the other legal requirements from one of them being the requirement of specifically and only being between a man and a woman?
Again, I refer to Mr. Webster
Main Entry: dis·crim·i·na·tion
3 a : the act, practice, or an instance of discriminating categorically rather than individually b : prejudiced or prejudicial outlook, action, or treatment (
http://www.webster.com/cgi-bin/dictionary?...=discriminating )
No surprise here, again we're discriminating by categories and not individuals, but "b" holds the key, "prejudicial treatment".
Main Entry: 2prejudice
1 : to injure or damage by some judgment or action (as in a case of law)
(
http://www.webster.com/cgi-bin/dictionary?...diced&x=18&y=17 )
AH, so to discriminate against someone is to injure or damage them. Well, government sanctioned injury against someone, or even worse - a category of people is something I find reprehensible, and contradictory to the concept of a free society and equal treatment under the law. I doubt anyone would like to part of a "CATEGORY" of people who are being injured or damaged.
So to categorically discriminate against someone is injurious, as in the case of homosexual marriage, but to discriminate against an individual based on merit - such as the convicted felons is not. I should point out that discriminating against an individual felon convicted of animal abuse applying for a job at an animal shelter would be an example of using good judgement because of the relevance of the crime, while discriminating against that person for a job at the local fast food outlet is discrimination based on category. Which is my answer to the second original question.
Main Entry: dis·crim·i·nate
1 a : to make a distinction <discriminate among historical sources>
b : to use good judgment (
http://www.webster.com/cgi-bin/dictionary?...=discriminating )
I also want to point out that I think the question attempts to infer that homosexuality is a choice, and that one can simply choose not to be homosexual, but one cannot help to be anything other than whatever their heritage or race is (Michael Jackson excluded). I consider that flawed logic, and have yet to see conclusive proof one way or another regarding biological/biochemical foundations for homosexuality. But I do see legal precedents for equal treatment under the law.
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I may discriminate against someone, though, who wears a blue jacket with a Hell's Angels patch. He hasn't done anything else in my view, but is it not reasonable to judge that person, using my own biases and morals, based on his behavior (ie. the patch)?
Again, this is an example of categorical discrimination, no where in this example has any attempt been made to evaluate the merit of the individual.
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More importantly, shouldn't that be my right?
perhaps, but I think your personal right here is trumped by the fact that it infringes upon another's personal rights. This may be a matter of business law if it is referring specifically to wether or not you want to hire that person, but if it is just a matter of whether or not you want to interact with him, then it is certainly your right.
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I think anti-discrimination has gone too far in preventing people from making rational decisions about what they choose to permit in their environment.
I've heard this argument before, and I find it to be nothing more than a convoluted attempt to justify the unjustifiable. This is an argument for segregation, bigotry, the holocaust, and any other form of discrimination. By attempting to invoke a right to authority over the actions of others you attempt to trump their rights guaranteed to them under the law, and create the same basis by which they could effectively trump your rights. That is why the extent of any persons rights ends at the point where they infringe upon the rights of another. This is an old argument, only a new spin to it here. Your reason, rationale, morals, beliefs are irrelevant to the issue, just a way to cloud and obscure it. I call it the "how dare you deny me my right to deny other's their rights" mindset.
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In terms of Newsome and S.F., I believe it is right for the public to discriminate, not against homosexuals, but against their actions. More specifically, equal protection should not extend to forcing the public to permit certain actions to be sanctioned and considered acceptable carte blanche. So, while we can say any homosexual is free to behave as he chooses in his own home or within any private establishment which welcomes his behavior, he is restricted from performing those actions in a manner which implies and requires the public's approval.
Maybe I'm drifting here, but what the heck. I find this whole issue to be missing one key ingredient, the separation of church and state. I accept the concept that marriage is a function of religion, a religous ceremony, and as such the catholic church has the right not to sanction homosexual marriage. However, I do NOT accept the premise that since legal status has been given to a religous function that the state can therefore permit sanctioned legal discrimination because the private institution of the church does so. As you put it,
I do not believe in the state "forcing the public to permit certain actions to be sanctioned and considered acceptable" that are religous functions. For example, I would not suggest that we change the legal drinking age for jewish boys to 13. This is the danger of blending religion into a supposedly "free" society. If the state choses to do away with the term "marriage" legally, in favor of "union", or something similar, so that both homosexual and heterosexual couples can enjoy the same rights, I will have no problem with the church deciding who can and can't get "married". until then, I'm in favor of equal rights under the law.