Starting at the top: What basis is there for concluding that this is a "reasonable" court? Simply because you agree with more of their decisions than you disagree with? Seriously, how can you conclude that this lineup of justices is reasonable when just about everybody on this board considers McCain-Feingold to be a gross violation of the 1st Amendment, yet this court upheld it? Or you have the subject, with the juvenile death penalty simply being the latest example, of the justices who you consider to be most "reasonable" looking beyond our shores for guidance. Whether you agree or not with the ruling, the method used to arrive at it is unreasonable for someone sworn to uphold the laws of the United States, and the foundation of those laws is the declaration that
our citizens are sovereign here, not the citizens of other nations.
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Regardless of what direction Bush takes, I think--based on the past four years--it will be divisive. Despite a record of bipartisanship as Governor of Texas, dividing seems to be one of Bush's talents as president
Think about that. "Regardless of what direction", yet you lay the talent for division on Bush?
Lawrence Auster did a piece on the behavior of most of the Left in the Schiavo case, and the upshot is this: their support of Michael Schiavo had
nothing to do with the merits of the case, and everything to do with opposing the Christian conservatives. It sounds like you're saying the same thing: no matter what Bush does, he's wrong. And this thinking is supposed to lead us to "reasonable"?
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Judges? Don't you mean Congress, the folks who routinely pass laws that exceed their authority?
Exceed their authority?
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Article XIV.
Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
Section 5. The Congress shall have power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.
Congressional intervention into the matter was certainly unusual, but it does not exceed their authority. Nor did any of the Federal Courts so find, they simply accepted jurisdiction, said that "due process" had been satisfied, and kicked it back down.
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So if Congress doesn't like a state court ruling it can order a federal court to rehear the case?
I don't think so. Congress has power over federal courts, not state courts or matters that are the province of the states.
Refer to the 14th Amendment again. You did seem concerned about it at the top of the thread...
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It seems to me there are many good arguments that liberals can make to persuade THE PUBLIC that we shouldn't want people who think like Scalia and Thomas to dominate the Supreme Court.
Ahh, but the problem is, there appear to be a lot more arguments that can be made against people like Ginsburg, Souter and Breyer. More importantly, how can you make your arguments while staying within the framework of the Constitution? Conversely, if you have a problem with the idea of activist conservative judges, you're going to have a tough time making an argument that isn't just as valid against activist liberal judges, unless its the conservatism that you object to, rather than activism. When you go down that road, you become just another divisive partisan hack attempting a shell game. Don't think that'll work, but you can give it a try.
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Lyrical Rocker - This is not the place to discuss what is or is not a bill of attainder. But since you've brought it up, let me address it.
Actually LR, you brought it up, and have been proven to be
wrong. You only look like a fool when you deny your error and attempt to duck the issue.
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Actually, the Declaration of Independance is NOT law. Tell me, this "law" was passed by what government, of what country? The DoI was the colonies giving Britain the finger, nothing else. It cannot be US law, because the US did not exist at the time it was passed. It is exactly what the name implies, the colonies declaring themselves independant from Britain.
Funny, Congress seems to think otherwise. The DoI is part of the "Organic Law of the United States" as recorded in the United States Statutes at Large. It is the first document so identified, followed by the Articles of Confederation, then the Northwest Ordinance, and finally the Constitution itself.
The United States Statutes at Large is legal and permanent evidence of all the laws enacted during a session of Congress (1 U.S.C. 112).Nonetheless, following your logic, what government, what country, passed the Constitution? It couldn't have been the "United States of America", because that government CAME INTO BEING with the Constitution. Oddly enough though, its the same
people, which matters if you believe that the people are sovereign, not the government.